Overdraft, you will get no fees. Loan will charge you minimum 11%.
Overdraft. Itās offset against the 500 in the goal so effectively 0pc.
Thereās no fees on the overdraft? I thought there was a percentage based fee.
Anything in your goals offsets this. If you have Ā£500 in Goals you wonāt be charged if you go -Ā£500 in your main account.
Thereās a world of difference between not having the right dates on a summary and a lending product
If you want the comfort that you know exactly how much you will need to pay each month (for, say, 12 months), then take the loan.
If you think you may be able to pay it back sooner, or itāll only be a couple of months or so - Take the OD.
You can still pay a loan back early if you need to.
Of course - I would strongly advise you use your Goal money here to save on interest
Edit to include what I missed (that the others have already said).
The Ā£500 in goals will offset the interest fees!
If he has Ā£500 he wonāt touch in a goal and does not want to pay regularly, a loan is a terrible and expensive idea.
Gotcha.
But if I have no money in Goals, and I take a loan, and I repay it from the overdraftā¦ Iām getting charged the loan fee, and the overdraft fee?
That remains outstanding, but on the surface if you paid the loan with your overdraft youād pay interest on the loan and the 15% overdraft on any negative balance.
I believe so (not confirmed).
But Iād be surprised if Starling offered an overdraft to someone who would be in that position.
They already sort of do. You could loan Ā£2000 of your Ā£4000 overdraft, and pay the loan with the remaining overdraft.
If you have been approved for a 4K overdraft - Then I assume you could.
But a lot of these examples are more hypothetical - In the real world, no one will do that (youād hope )
Surely Starling arenāt charging two lots of fees - an overdraft fee & loan fee - for borrowing the same money? This is hilarious
Surely Starling arenāt charging two lots of fees - an overdraft fee & loan fee - for borrowing the same money? This is hilarious
If you pay off a loan with an overdraftā¦ Why wouldnāt you get charged 2 lots of fees?
FYI - In this example, the 2 fees would come to less than 1 OD fee.
Ah ok, I think I misunderstood the situation SimonB was describing
the 2 fees would come to less than 1 OD fee.
This is why I (as a consumer) prefer the daily flat fee concept (Not just saying that because I work here and thatās our approach)
I feel like Iād have no understanding and no daily/monthly/annual visibility of what youāve just said. Two potential percentage based fees, at different rates, some offset against money I might have set aside and some not? I get that for lots of people this all might be easy to understand, but I think for a significant amount of people itās not easy to understand.
This is why I (as a consumer) prefer the daily flat fee concept (Not just saying that because I work here and thatās our approach)
I feel like Iād have no understanding and no daily/monthly/annual visibility of what youāve just said. Two potential percentage based fees, at different rates, some offset against money I might have set aside and some not? I get that for lots of people this all might be easy to understand, but I think for a significant amount of people itās not easy to understand.
I completely understand that.
But when āSpread The Costā goes live, youāll have a similar situation where you have 1 flat fee, and 1 APR fee at 15%?
I donāt see how that is different to these examples (apart from the 50p per day vs an APR rate on ODās).
Edit - Of course we are all talking like we will be living in our ODās AND having a loan to pay off!
Letās hope none of those things actually happen!
The flat fee approach works when itās tiered, as it is itās punitive for small overdraft usage. Simplicity is great, but that doesnāt make the product better for the customer. Iād also say, regardless of how messed up Starling have made their borrowing offerings, offsetting the overdraft with any other deposits held is a nice consumer friendly move.
Yeah, absolutely, but I think the combination of two percentage based things is where it falls apart for a lot of people.
Regardless of whether I have to dip into my Monzo OD to cover Spread The Cost, I still know that the OD fee will never be more than Ā£15 on a 30 day month and then I can understand the STC fee purely based on the value of the STC loan over the fixed term.
But what if I donāt use STC and I use Ā£100 of my overdraft for a month, for example? One is Ā£1.16 and the other is Ā£15.50.
Edit: and if I have Ā£100 savings, itās Ā£0 and Ā£15.50 in the other. Doesnāt seem right.